Replies: 6 comments 2 replies
-
Not quite! It is qualitatively similar but the top-right value (x, y) = (1, 1) of the numerical solution is 0.9357… For the n-th exact solution, it is sin (n + ½)π / tanh (n + ½)π; e.g. for n = 0, coth π/2 = 1.09033… Some plots: Figure:— The numerical solution, Figure:— The first three exact solutions, n = 0, 1, 2. |
Beta Was this translation helpful? Give feedback.
-
I notice that |
Beta Was this translation helpful? Give feedback.
-
A bit stumped after the above, I began to wonder what this kind of boundary condition might mean. One of the posters on scicomp referred to it as an ‘electrode’ through which a given current passes. Could the implication be that the electrode is at an unknown uniform potential? Does that render the problem well posed? |
Beta Was this translation helpful? Give feedback.
-
Currently I don't have enough time to work on this. But let's leave the issue open so maybe someone with more knowledge on the subject pops up. |
Beta Was this translation helpful? Give feedback.
-
O. K. I think I see three subproblems:
|
Beta Was this translation helpful? Give feedback.
-
I thought about this for a while. I wonder if this particular strong formulation is an incorrect way of looking at this. This is after all a saddle point problem so I'd think the correct strong formulation would have two unknowns, u and some Lagrange multiplier. Also, I think not all u[n] are equivalent in that they have different energies (H^1 seminorm of the solution). u[0] corresponds to the smallest energy. |
Beta Was this translation helpful? Give feedback.
-
Not urgent. (And possibly placed somewhere better than in this issue tracker? Back on the Computational Science Stack Exchange?)
ex05 purports to solve Δ u = 0 in the unit square subject to homogeneous
conditions on three sides but driven by an integrally constrained flux on the fourth: ∫ n ⋅ ∇ u d y = 1, with the integral being over x = 1.
However, this problem, posed like this, does not have a unique solution; u [ n] = sin {(n + ½)π y} cosh {(n + ½)π x} / sinh {(n + ½)π} for n ∈ ℕ is a solution, as is any linear combination with weights summing to unity. Whereas this kind of nonuniqueness often results in a singular finite element stiffness matrix (e.g. the pure Neumann problem), this is not the case here. At first glance, the numerical solution appears to resemble u [0].
This kind of integral constraint is discussed at:
The discussions imply that this is a reasonably standard boundary condition (‘I know commercial software solves this problem just as efficiently as with regular BC’) and don't mention uniqueness.
Questions:
Hunch: the discrete formulation is minimizing something which eliminates all n > 0.
Beta Was this translation helpful? Give feedback.
All reactions